Expand Cut Tags

No cut tags
topaz: (Morgan - thrashin')
[personal profile] topaz
Morgan's homework today included this problem (reproduced here verbatim):
If you have one dice with the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. Expressed as a fraction, what is the probability of rolling a double (2 of the same number) in 25 rolls?
The probability that at least one number will come up twice is clearly 100%.  We're assuming that they're asking for the probability that at some point two consecutive rolls will turn up the same number.

This seems like a remarkably sophisticated problem to assign a sixth-grader.  It looks like it would have been a reasonable problem for my probability midterm in high school.  Does anyone here disagree?

Edit: The problem was not made up or handwritten by the math teacher -- it was submitted as part of a Math 4 Today handout that he gets assigned on a weekly basis.  For better or for worse, this was part of a standard curriculum math workbook.  (And they wonder is our children learning anything!)

Date: 2010-03-25 03:35 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] matthewwdaly.livejournal.com
I'm confused by "one dice". If they meant "one die", then you're probably right. I'm wondering if they didn't mean "one pair of dice", which would be a slightly more intuitive problem. I don't think either is a killer as long as you've been taught the addition and multiplication rules for probability.

Still, holy cow. I'm not sure I knew what abstract exponentiation was in sixth grade, and certainly not that numbers as high as 6^25 could be arithmetically processed, and I was a prodigy.

(Sorry for the drive-by.)

Date: 2010-03-25 04:02 am (UTC)
ext_86356: (a CLUE!!)
From: [identity profile] qwrrty.livejournal.com
Hey, no worries. You're right, if they meant "a pair of dice" by "one dice" then that simplifies the problem a lot. I don't think any of us even considered that interpretation.

Date: 2010-03-25 04:40 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] matthewwdaly.livejournal.com
Your interpretation isn't too rough. For each of the rolls after the first one, the probability of matching the previous roll is 1/6, so the probability that it happens at least once is 1-(5/6)^24. It's a subtle argument that those events are all independent, though, and I'd hate to set a sixth-grader down the path of never thinking about the risk of dependency contaminating the probabilities.

Date: 2010-03-25 01:24 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] razil.livejournal.com
Yes. My first reaction is "0" since if you only have one die you obviously can't roll a double. :)

Date: 2010-03-25 02:44 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] buddhagrrl.livejournal.com
In all seriousness, that was my first reaction too, and I assumed the problem was just incorrectly worded.

Date: 2010-03-25 03:41 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] dancingwolfgrrl.livejournal.com
Me three, although I meant it snarkily, assuming that "one dice" was intended to mean "one pair of dice" and that since they can't type, I am not required to do any math.

Date: 2010-03-25 04:44 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] spike.livejournal.com
I disagree. The standard 'pip pattern' for six is clearly a double-three:
o   o
o   o
o   o
The pip pattern for four is less clearly, but still arguably a double-two. The pip pattern for two is only barely arguably a double-one.

Date: 2010-03-25 04:18 am (UTC)
blk: (computer)
From: [personal profile] blk
I bet this is right, and they meant "a pair of dice." That makes the next sentence make much more sense.

May 2018

S M T W T F S
  12345
6789101112
13141516171819
20212223242526
27282930 31  

Most Popular Tags

Style Credit

Page generated Mar. 6th, 2026 12:29 am
Powered by Dreamwidth Studios